Zach LaVine’s future has been a matter of great speculation in recent weeks with the Bulls star being linked with a whole host of franchises in free agency. The Portland Trail Blazers, the Dallas Mavericks, and the Los Angeles Lakers were among the teams being linked with some sort of approach to bring LaVine in.
Reports suggested that LaVine would be unlikely to sign with the Chicago Bulls where he has been since 2017. The Bulls will have been hoping to keep the All-Star in the meanwhile, as they continue their quest to build a contender once again. And while all the media noise until now hasn’t been in favor of the Bulls, the latest report from Jake Fischer of Bleacher Report will make welcome reading for the franchise’s fans.
“Two-time All-Star Zach LaVine is expected to re-sign with the Chicago Bulls once the free-agency negotiation period opens June 30, sources told B/R.
“LaVine’s free agency has generated plenty of conversation among NBA personnel over the past few weeks. But despite rumblings that the Portland Trail Blazers, San Antonio Spurs, Atlanta Hawks and Los Angeles Lakers will make plays for LaVine, the coveted swingman is likely to remain with his current team.”
“Ironing out LaVine’s next deal appears centered on the fifth year of the contract. LaVine is eligible for a five-year deal totaling roughly $200 million. Whether that season is fully guaranteed, is a player option or nets other potential outcomes remains to be seen.”
This will come as a blow to teams like the Blazers and the Lakers, who need support for their main stars in the former of another consistent All-Star. For LaVine, however, it might make the most sense, considering that the Bulls have built a good team around him as well as treating him like one of their main options on offense.
